PTCB Exam Study Guide: 120+ Practice Questions & Answers

The CCI Training Center Pharmacy Technician Training Program is designed to help students ace the PTCE examination.

Essential Practice Questions To Help You Succeed

The questions in this section are drawn directly from established PTCE study content, ensuring relevance and alignment with core exam competencies.

I. Pharmacy Law and Administrative Practice

Controlled Substance Regulations (Schedules and Forms)

Q1: What is the rule regarding refills for Schedule II drugs?
A: Not refillable. A new written prescription must be obtained each time.

Q2: What is the maximum number of refills allowed for Schedule III and IV drugs?
A: Maximum of 5 times in a 6-month period.

Q3: What DEA form is used to order Schedule II controlled substances?
A: DEA Form 222 (Triplicate order form: Brown copy to supplier, Green to DEA, Blue stays in pharmacy).

Q4: How long is a DEA Form 222 valid?
A: 60 days.

Q5: What must be done to the pharmacy’s copy of a completed DEA Form 222?
A: It must be stamped with a red “C” stamp if filed with other than 222 forms and kept for 2 years.

Q6: What DEA form is used for the destruction of outdated controlled substances?
A: DEA Form 41.

Q7: Name one example of a Schedule I drug.
A: Heroin, Marijuana, LSD, Crack Cocaine, Mescaline, or PCP (No medicinal use, highest abuse potential).

Q8: Identify the schedule for Vicodin (hydrocodone + APAP).
A: Schedule III.

Q9: Identify the schedule for Xanax (alprazolam).
A: Schedule IV (Benzodiazepine).

Q10: What must be included on the label of a controlled medication regarding transfer?
A: “Caution, Federal Law prohibits the transfer of this drug to any person other than the patient for whom it was prescribed” (Do not cover with an auxiliary label).

Q11: How often must a complete inventory of controlled substances be conducted?
A: Every 2 years, and records must be kept for 2 years.

Q12: What must a DEA number be verified against to be considered valid?
A: The last digit of the total sum of the calculation must match the last digit of the DEA number.

Key Federal Laws and Operational Compliance

Q13: What law established two classes of drugs: Legend (Rx) and Non-Legend (OTC)?
A: Durham-Humphrey Amendment (Prescription Drug Amendment).

Q14: What is the significance of the Kefauver-Harris Amendment?
A: Required all medications on the U.S. market to be pure, safe, and effective.

Q15: What patient information is required to be provided by OBRA ’90 (Omnibus Reconciliation Act of 1990)?
A: Name/description of medication, dosage form, dose, route, duration, side effects, storage, refill information, and what to do if a dose is missed (Requires counseling by the pharmacist).

Q16: List three scenarios where Patient Package Inserts (PPIs) are required to be supplied to the patient by the FDA.
A: Oral contraceptives, Estrogen, Progestin, Isotretinoin (Accutane), or Inhalers.

Q17: What organization ensures a safe and healthful workplace, requiring documentation such as Material Safety Data Sheets (MSDS)?
A: OSHA (Occupational Safety and Health Administration).

Q18: Which federal act requires pharmacies to use child-resistant containers unless exempted?
A: Poison Prevention Packaging Act (PPPA).

Q19: Name two examples of medications exempt from the PPPA.
A: Nitroglycerin sublingual tablets, oral contraceptives, cholestyramine, betamethasone, or methylprednisolone (<85 mg).

Q20: Define “misbranding” under the Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (FDCA).
A: When the label is false, misleading, lacks proper warnings/directions, or fails to include the manufacturer’s name/place of business.

Q21: What is the role of the Joint Commission on Accreditation of Health Care Organizations (JCAHO)?
A: Oversees quality control to ensure procedures and end products meet standards (e.g., through Drug Use Evaluation (DUE)).

Q22: What is the rule concerning two differing laws (Federal vs. State)?
A: Always follow the stricter law.

Q23: What are three duties a pharmacy technician is federally prohibited from performing?
A: Receiving oral prescriptions over the phone, exercising professional judgment, or transferring prescriptions. To understand better, check what the duties of a pharmacy technician are.

Inventory and Distribution

Q24: What is the “Want Book” used for in inventory control?
A: A manual system used to identify supplies/medications to be ordered immediately (“Sell one – order one”).

Q25: Define “Prime Vendor Purchasing.”
A: A contractual agreement where the pharmacy purchases 80-95% of its pharmaceuticals from a single wholesaler.

Q26: What is the most common reason for returning inventory to a supplier?
A: Expired pharmaceuticals.

Q27: What is the maximum acceptable duration for the expiration date on incoming stock?
A: Products must have expiration dates of at least 6 months from receiving.

Q28: What is the purpose of rotating stock (new in back/old in front)?
A: To ensure products with the shortest expiration dates are dispensed first, minimizing waste.

Q29: What is a Class I Drug Recall?
A: A situation where exposure to the product will cause severe health problems or death.

Q30: What does the National Drug Code (NDC) number identify?
A: The manufacturer (first 5 digits), the drug name and strength (middle 4 digits), and the package size (last 2 digits).

Q31: What is the maximum expiration date allowed when repackaging bulk medication (the 50% rule)?
A: 50% of the manufacturer’s date or a maximum of one year, whichever is earlier.

II. Core Pharmacology and Dispensing

Latin Abbreviations and Directions

NOTE: The following 15 translations cover common abbreviations from the study guide.

Q32: Translate ‘ac’.
A: Before meals.

Q33: Translate ‘bid’. 
A: Twice daily.

Q34: Translate ‘c’.
A: With.

Q35: Translate ‘d’.
A: Give.

Q36: Translate ‘gtt’.
A: Drop.

Q37: Translate ‘h’.
A: Hour.

Q38: Translate ‘hs’.
A: At bedtime (hour of sleep).

Q39: Translate ‘noct’.
A: Night.

Q40: Translate ‘od’.
A: Right eye.

Q41: Translate ‘os’.
A: Left eye.

Q42: Translate ‘ou’.
A: Both eyes.

Q43: Translate ‘prn’.
A: As needed.

Q44: Translate ‘q’.
A: Every.

Q45: Translate ‘ss’.
A: One-half (1/2).

Q46: Translate: “i tab sl prn chest pain.”
A: Dissolve one tablet under the tongue as needed for chest pain.

Drug Classes, Names, and Auxiliary Labels

Q47: To which class of antibiotics do drugs ending in -cillin belong?
A: Penicillins (PCN).

Q48: What is the common drug interaction between Warfarin (Coumadin) and Aspirin?
A: Aspirin increases the risk of bleeding due to blood thinning, interacting dangerously with Warfarin.

Q49: What disease state is a contraindication for Pseudoephedrine (Sudafed)?
A: High blood pressure (hypertension) or diabetes (worsens existing disease state).

Q50: Name two drugs that require the auxiliary label “No Alcohol.”
A: Metronidazole (Flagyl), oral hypoglycemic agents, or narcotic analgesics (causes vomiting/extreme drowsiness).

Q51: What is the action of an Antagonist?
A: Blocks the action of an agonist from binding to a receptor, preventing a response (e.g., Naloxone for narcotic overdose).

Q52: How must nitroglycerin sublingual tablets be stored?
A: In their original glass amber bottle, with a non-child-resistant lid.

Q53: Which B vitamin needs to be given IM due to absorption issues?
A: Vitamin B-12 (cyanocobalamin).

Q54: What is the normal dosage concentration for insulin?
A: 100 units/ml (U-100).

Q55: Which type of insulin is the only one allowed to be administered in an IV bag?
A: Regular insulin.

Q56: What is the risk of using expired Tetracycline (TCN)?
A: It can be fatal.

Q57: What are drugs that end in -olol typically classified as?
A: Beta Blockers (e.g., Metoprolol, Atenolol).

Q58: What are drugs that end in -pril typically classified as?
A: ACE Inhibitors (e.g., Lisinopril, Enalapril).

Q59: What common side effect can all NSAIDs cause, requiring the auxiliary label “Take with Food/Milk”?
A: Gastrointestinal distress or ulcers.

Q60: What three properties must a medication possess to be classified as an NSAID?
A: Anti-inflammatory, anti-pyretic (fever reducer), and analgesic (pain reliever).

Q61: What drug class is used to treat Tuberculosis (TB)?
A: Rifampin, Isoniazid (INH), or Ethambutol.

Q62: Antidepressant effects are often not immediate; how long might it take for efficacy to be achieved?
A: From 21 days up to 8 weeks.

Dosage Forms and Pharmacokinetics

Q63: What is the definition of Absorption?
A: The drug gets absorbed into the bloodstream.

Q64: What process allows a sublingual tablet to avoid the “first pass” effect?
A: Absorption directly into the bloodstream under the tongue, bypassing metabolism by the liver.

Q65: Which solid dosage form is designed to prevent dissolution in the stomach and only dissolve in the intestine?
A: Enteric-coated tablets.

Q66: What are capsules typically made out of?
A: Gelatin shell.

Q67: Which liquid dosage form contains the highest concentration of alcohol?
A: Tinctures.

Q68: What is the exact expiration time for a medication expiring on 11-09?
A: The last day of the month at midnight (November 30th, 2009, at midnight)

III. Pharmacy Calculations Mastery

Metric, Household, and Apothecary Conversions

Q69: Convert 528 g to mg.
A: $528 = 528,000mg (moving the decimal three places to the right).

Q70: How many grams of active ingredient are in 24 tablets, each containing 1/320 grain?
A: 24 tabs x 1/320 gr/tab = 24/320 gr. 1 gr = 65 mg (approx). (24/320) x 65 mg = 4.875 mg or 0.004875 g.

Q71: Convert 72° F to Celsius.
A: C = (F – 32) × 5/9, which gives you 22.22°C, by subtracting 32 from 72 and then multiplying by 5/9 (or dividing by 9/5).

Q72: What is the equivalent temperature range for room temperature storage in Celsius?
A: 15° C to 30° C.

Q73: If a patient is taking 1 tablespoon of medication three times daily (tid), how many days will a 12 fluid-ounce bottle last?
A: 12 fluid ounces = 360 ml
1 tablespoon = 15 ml
Daily dose = 15 ml × 3 = 45 ml/day
360 ml ÷ 45 ml/day = 8 days

Q74: A total therapy regimen calls for 10 mg of medication. The pharmacy solution is 40 mcg/ml. How many ml must be dispensed?
A: Convert units: 10 mg = 10,000 mcg. Then divide: 10,000 mcg ÷ 40 mcg/ml = 250 ml.

Q75: An order requests 20 gr. How many 325 mg tablets would you dispense?
A: Convert: 20 gr × 65 mg/gr = 1300 mg. Then divide: 1300 mg ÷ 325 mg/tablet = 4 tablets.

Alligation Problems (Tic-Tac-Toe Method)

The alligation method is critical for determining the proportion of two different strengths required to compound an intermediate strength.

Q76: How many ml of water should be added to 95% ethyl alcohol to make 1 L of 30% ethyl alcohol solution?
A: Setup: 95% (top), 0% (water, bottom), target 30% (middle).
Parts: 30 − 0 = 30 parts (from 95% alcohol); 95 − 30 = 65 parts (from water).
Total parts = 95.

Water needed: (65 ÷ 95) × 1000 ml = 684.2 ml.

Q77: Q: What ratio of 25% dextrose and 10% dextrose should be mixed to make a 20% solution?
A: Setup: 25% (top) and 10% (bottom), target 20% (middle).
Parts: 20 − 10 = 10 parts (from 25% dextrose); 25 − 20 = 5 parts (from 10% dextrose).
Ratio (25%: 10%) = 10 parts : 5 parts, simplified to 2 : 1.

Flow Rates and IV Calculations

Q78: What would the flow rate be in drops/min (gtts/min) if a 1000 ml bag is to run 8 hours? The calibration set is 10 gtts/ml.
A: Flow Rate = (1000 ml × 10 gtts/ml) ÷ (8 hr × 60 min/hr) = 10,000 ÷ 480 = 20.8 gtts/min.

Q79: A 500 mg dose in 50 ml is administered over 30 minutes using a 60 gtts/ml set. What is the flow rate in drops/min?
A: Time conversion: 30 min = 0.5 hr.
Flow Rate = (50 ml × 60 gtts/ml) ÷ (0.5 hr × 60 min/hr) = 3000 ÷ 30 = 100 drops/min.

Q80: An IV fluid bag is running at 125 ml/hr. How long will a 1 L bag last?
A: 1 L = 1000 ml.
1000 ml ÷ 125 ml/hr = 8 hours.

IV. Patient Safety, Equipment, and Aseptic Technique

Equipment and Compounding

Q81: Which is the more accurate device for measuring liquids: a conical graduate or a graduated cylinder?
A: Graduated cylinder.

Q82: How must liquid measurements be taken in a graduated cylinder?
A: At the bottom of the concave meniscus, viewed at eye level.

Q83: What is the maximum weight a Class A prescription balance can accurately weigh?
A: 15 grams (minimum 120 mg).

Q84: What is the process of reducing particle size by grinding hard crystals into fine powder using a Wedgewood mortar called?
A: Trituration.

Q85: What is the definition of Levigation?
A: Reduction of particle size by triturating a powder with a small amount of liquid in which the powder is insoluble.

Q86: Why are antibiotics often prepared and stored as powders prior to reconstitution?
A: They are more stable in powder form. Reconstitution with water changes stability, often requiring refrigeration and a new expiration date.

Sterile Compounding and Aseptic Technique

Q87: How often must a laminar flow hood be certified or inspected?
A: Every 6 months, or when moved or if the HEPA filter becomes wet.

Q88: Which type of laminar flow hood is mandatory for preparing cytotoxic or hazardous drugs (e.g., antineoplastics)?
A: Vertical laminar flow hood (Biological Safety Cabinet).

Q89: What is the purpose of maintaining slight negative pressure when working with hazardous drug vials?
A: To prevent hazardous drug from spraying out of the vial onto the technician.

Q90: How far into the laminar flow hood must work be performed?
A: At least 6 inches, to ensure the work is performed in the critical clean air area.

Q91: What is the size specification for a sterilizing filter?
A: 0.22 micron.

Q92: What are the “critical sites” on a syringe and needle that must not be touched?
A: Needle shaft and syringe plunger.

Q93: What is the risk associated with improper insertion of a needle into a vial stopper?
A: Coring (pieces of rubber stopper being carved out and introduced into the solution).

Q94: In TPN preparation, which TPN component is the largest source of energy?
A: Fats.

Q95: What two electrolytes must be added with caution in TPN preparation as they can form visible precipitates (“snow”)?
A: Calcium and Phosphate. Calcium must be added last.

Q96: How are Antineoplastic (chemotherapy) drugs disposed of?
A: Placed in a leak-proof, puncture-resistant container, sealed, and incinerated.

Q97: What does the term “Pyrogens” refer to in parenteral products?
A: Contaminants that, if present, can cause a fever in the patient.

Classroom Quizzes and Past Exam Questions

The following questions are drawn from the comprehensive quizzes and past exams:

Q98: How many tablets should be dispensed for: 2 tabs PO BID × 3 days, 3 tabs PO QD × 2 days, 2 tabs PO QD × 2 days, 1 tab PO QD × 1 day, then 1/2 tab PO QD × 1 day?
A: (2 × 2 × 3) + (3 × 2) + (2 × 2) + (1 × 1) + (0.5 × 1) = 12 + 6 + 4 + 1 + 0.5 = 23.5 tablets (typically 24 tablets dispensed).

Q99: What is the Roman numeral XLII equivalent to?
A: 42.

Q100: What is the NDC number pattern?
A: 5 numbers (manufacturer), 4 numbers (drug/strength), 2 numbers (package size).

Q101: What is the meaning of the Latin abbreviation ‘pr’?
A: Rectally.

Q102: What dosage form should be dispensed for an order reading: “Tylenol $325 mg pr q 4 h prn”?
A: Suppositories.

Q103: The drug Cipro (ciprofloxacin) is classified as a:
A: Quinolone antibiotic.

Q104: What medication class is typically contraindicated in patients with high blood pressure due to drug-disease state interactions?
A: Decongestants (e.g., Sudafed/pseudoephedrine).

Q105: What volume of 250 mg/5 ml suspension should be dispensed for a prescription of penicillin VK 250 mg tabs PO QID for 10 days?
A: Total tablets needed: 4 tabs/day × 10 days = 40 tabs. If 1 tab = 5 ml, then 40 × 5 ml = 200 ml.

Q106: What is the definition of Synergy in pharmacology?
A: The combination of more than one drug together produces a result greater than each individual drug could (e.g., combining antibiotics and proton pump inhibitors to treat ulcers).

Q107: What is the drug of choice for treating acute gout attacks?
A: Indomethacin (an NSAID) or Allopurinol (for uric acid reduction).

Q108: Which urinary analgesic will turn urine orange?
A: Phenazopyridine (Pyridium).

Q109: How is an ampule opened?
A: Swab the neck with an alcohol pad and snap away from the technician and away from the HEPA filter.

Q110: The DEA Form 222 (used to order C-II drugs) is valid for only how long?
A: 60 days.

Q111: Which drug is a Calcium Channel Blocker?
A: Diltiazem (Cardizem) or Verapamil (Calan).

Q112: Which is a common side effect of Antihistamines, with the exception of Claritin (loratadine)?
A: Drowsiness.

Q113: What medication is used to induce vomiting in case of an overdose?
A: Syrup of Ipecac (Dose: 15 ml).

Q114: What is the mechanism of action of Activated Charcoal?
A: Absorbs the poison in the body and eliminates it.

Q115: What is the definition of Angina?
A: Insufficient oxygen to the heart muscle, causing sudden, severe substernal pain.

Q116: What vitamin is often given IM to correct a deficiency?
A: Vitamin B-12 (cyanocobalamin).

Q117: What is the difference between a prescription and a medication order?
A: A prescription is an order given to the patient to be filled, while a medication order is written for a patient in an institution (hospital) and kept on file.

Q118: The largest amount of energy (calories) in a Total Parenteral Nutrition (TPN) solution comes from which component?
A: Fats.

Q119: Drugs that end in -tidine (e.g., Famotidine, Ranitidine) are generally classified as:
A: Histamine-2 Blockers (used for anti-ulcer treatment).

Q120: The common cold preparation ingredient Dextromethorphan (DM) is classified as an:
A: Antitussive (cough suppressant).

Q121: What is the brand name for Trazodone?
A: Desyrel.

Q122: What is the brand name for Warfarin?
A: Coumadin.

Q123: What is the generic name for Fosamax?
A: Alendronate.

Q124: What is the most common drug used for Parkinson’s disease?
A: Sinemet (Levodopa-Carbidopa).

Q125: What medication should be used as a narcotic antagonist in the event of an overdose?
A: Naloxone.

Q126: What is the maximum number of times a non-scheduled prescription with “refill prn” can be refilled?
A: For one year.

Q127: What is the function of a Bronchodilator?
A: Relaxes bronchial muscle in the airways to treat asthma.

Q128: What is the proper procedure for cleaning a laminar flow hood?
A: Clean side-to-side, moving from the back of the unit to the front.

Q129: What is the term for the leakage of IV fluid into surrounding muscular tissue?
A: Infiltration.

Q130: When reconstituting an oral powder, what two key auxiliary labels must be added?
A: “Store in Refrigerator” (if required) and “Shake Well”.

Q131: What medication is used to treat attention deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD) and narcolepsy?
A: Methylphenidate (Ritalin).

Q132: What are two names for Antineoplastic (chemotherapy) drugs that require special handling?
A: Bleomycin, Cisplatin, or Methotrexate.

Q133: Which reference book provides wholesale and retail prices for medication and third-party reimbursement information?
A: Red Book.

Q134: What document describes the ingredients, handling procedures, and emergency actions for hazardous materials in the pharmacy?
A: Material Safety Data Sheets (MSDS).

Q135: What is the risk associated with wearing the nitroglycerin patch 24 hours a day?
A: Tolerance buildup (loss of effect).

Q136: What drug combination defines the product Trizivir (a common HIV medication)?
A: Zidovudine + Lamivudine + Abacavir.

Q137: What is the abbreviation for Potassium Iodide?
A: KI.

Q138: What type of ADR (Adverse Drug Reaction) is infrequent, not predictable, and may be life-threatening?
A: Type B (e.g., allergic reactions).

Q139: Name two vitamins that are fat-soluble (A, D, E, or K).
A: Vitamin D and Vitamin K (Fat-soluble vitamins can build up to toxic levels).

Q140: What is the term for a shortened term used to facilitate data entry into a computer system?
A: Mnemonic (e.g., TCN500 = Tetracycline 500 mg).

NOTE: You can always purchase the PTCE Practice Bank; however, it costs $65 per candidate.